BERIGAN Posted March 9, 2004 Report Posted March 9, 2004 ok, I decide to bid on some car magazines that someone has bundled in groups of 2...each one of these 8+ sets has one bid,(Each starts at 1.99) by the same person(At least on the three I bid on ) Ok. . so, I put in funky prices for some reason, I bid $3.22 on the first one, and sure enough, it makes me the high bidder at 3.22. Hmmm. So, next auction, I bid $2.99, and I am outbid, it is at $3.00 now. The 3rd auction, I bid 3.23...I am the high bidder, at 3.23!!! My head hurts! How can this be? Am I bidding against a fellow funky bidder who goes up a penny on each auction? I would understand this more if there were reserves, there are not any.... Quote
Jazzmoose Posted March 9, 2004 Report Posted March 9, 2004 Here's your answer: your competitor has thrown an extra dollar at the auction, thinking this will be enough to win. In each auction , he has bid $2.99. Now, the two auctions that you bid $3.23 on, of course, you are now the high bidder, as you have passed his high bid. Same with the other one, because his actual bid was still at the minimum ($1.99) until you raised it. Since you increased his "current bid" of $1.99 AND bid more than his "top bid" of $2.99, you now have the lead. HOWEVER, while your bid would have raised an actual bid of $1.99 to only $2.24, you have to beat his "top bid", not just his current bid. You do NOT have to beat his top bid by the minimum raise (25 cents in this case), because that is not yet his ACTUAL bid. Is this making any sense at all? Believe it or not, I actually understand what happened, but this explanation is giving me a headache... Quote
BERIGAN Posted March 9, 2004 Author Report Posted March 9, 2004 Well, when I first read it, I thought it made sense, now....I am not so sure! am tired. (Get that, am tired! ) Quote
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